pimptastic69 0 Posted August 25, 2013 According to rule 10.05(e), when a batted ball hits a baserunner, the result is a dead ball, the runner is out and the batter is credited with a base hit. Is the batter still credited with a hit if there are 2 outs with the baserunner becoming the 3rd out? Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
pimptastic69 0 Posted August 25, 2013 That would make sense, but where does it say that in the rules? Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
Patriotsfatboy1 1,432 Posted August 26, 2013 Yes, the hitter is credited with a single and according to rule 10.09.c.2, the nearest fielded is credited with a putout on the runner. Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
Thornton Melon 544 Posted August 27, 2013 I can't for the life of me figure out why they rule it a single rather than a fielder's choice. They credit the fielder with a putout, so it should be a FC. Baseball is dumb. Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
Patriotsfatboy1 1,432 Posted August 27, 2013 I can't for the life of me figure out why they rule it a single rather than a fielder's choice. They credit the fielder with a putout, so it should be a FC. Baseball is dumb. Agreed. It should be scored the same way as if the batter ripped one up the middle, but the runner was too slow going from first to second and was forced at 2nd by the CF. Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
TimmySmith 2,782 Posted August 27, 2013 I can't for the life of me figure out why they rule it a single rather than a fielder's choice. They credit the fielder with a putout, so it should be a FC. Baseball is dumb. It makes way more sense to credit the batter. You simply cannot assume that a play would have been made, but you know for a fact that the ball was struck. Therefore it doesn't make sense to penalize the batter for something completely out of his control. Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
