eaglesalltheway 0 Posted July 17, 2013 Is a HBP a called ball? I bet Harvey's first called pitch would be a ball, but it came up as a loss, saying Cabrera's swing and miss was the first called pitch. Is that correct? I always thought a HBP would still be a called ball. Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
posty 2,296 Posted July 17, 2013 His first pitch was lined for a double... Then he threw a ball and then plunked Cano... http://scores.espn.go.com/mlb/playbyplay?gameId=330716132&full=1&inning=0 Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
cyclone24 1,814 Posted July 17, 2013 Can someone answer a betting question for me.....im not a gambler but just always curious... Why do they say that vegas wants equal money on both sides? Wouldnt they want more money on one side...and then THAT side lose? Hows does 50-50 money make them money? Dumb question...just not something i get into Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
KSB2424 3,083 Posted July 17, 2013 Can someone answer a betting question for me.....im not a gambler but just always curious... Why do they say that vegas wants equal money on both sides? Wouldnt they want more money on one side...and then THAT side lose? Hows does 50-50 money make them money? Dumb question...just not something i get into Because of the juice. The juice can vary but lets say is 10%. When you bet a bookie or even vegas you have to put up 110 dollars to win 100 bucks. For example if you make a bet of 50 bucks and win, you collect 50 bucks; if you lose you pay out 55 dollars. So if the Heat are playing the Spurs. And Vegas has 1million on the Heat and 1million on the Spurs they don't even have to watch the game. They can just add 100K to the books regardless of who wins/covers. ETA: In baseball its a little bit different. Baseball is done not by a line but by odds. The way this 'juice' is derived there is not the 10% tax on losses. Its embedded in the odds and the payouts. For instance lets say the Mets are @ the Braves. Vegas thinks the Braves are a 2-1 favorite. Well the odds would be something like this: Braves -220 Mets +180 That means if you like the Braves, to win 100 bucks you have to put up $220. It also means if you bet on the underdog Mets, you can bet 100 bucks to win $180. The Brave better had to put up an extra 20 bucks and the Met bettor got paid out 20 bucks less than what the actual odds were. Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
cyclone24 1,814 Posted July 17, 2013 Ahhh....ok that makes sense. Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
